VET 2563 Midterm Exam (answered)

VET 2563 Midterm Exam (answered)

Which of the following lists contains only dissociative anesthetic agents?

A. Atropine and Tileramine
B. Tiletamine and Ketamine
C. Acepromazine and Midazolam
D. All of the above

Which parameters for monitoring anesthesia are maintained when Tiletamine/Zolazepam is given IM at an appropriate dose?

A. Palpebral reflex
B. Laryngeal/Pharyngeal reflex
C. Jaw tone
D. All of the above

Which of the following lists contains only benzodiazepines?

A. Zolazepam and Midazolam
B. Atropine and Diazepam
C. Acepromazine and Atropine
D. Xylazine and Zolazepam

Why is atropine indicated for use with Tiletamine/Zolazepam anesthesia?

A. To prevent hypoxia
B. To provide analgesia
C. To control salivation
D. To prevent bradycardia

What is the minimum maintenance oxygen flow rate for a partial rebreathing anesthetic system?

A. There is no minimum flow rate
B. 0.5 liter/minute
C. 1 liter/minute
D. 3 liters/minute

A standard size E (small) oxygen tank should be changed when the pressure drops below?

A. 100 PSI
B. 100 liters/minute
C. 500 PSI
D. 500 liters/minute

What is the minimum acceptable oxygen concentration in the blood to prevent hypoxia when measured by pulse oximetry during anesthesia?

A. 80%
B. 95%
C. 100%
D. 90%

If the sensitivity (amplitude) of an ECG machine is changed from 1 to 2, the resultant pQRSt complexes will be?

A. Taller
B. Shorter
C. Farther apart
D. Closer together

When performing an ECG strip, what does RUN 25 mean?

A. That the pQRSt complex is 25mm tall.
B. That there are 25 complexes per minute.
C. That the paper is moving at 25mm/sec.
D. That the paper is moving at 25cm/min.

When performing an ECG, what happens to the pQRSt complexes when the run speed is changed from Run 25 to Run 50?

A. The complexes become taller and closer together.
B. The complexes become wider and farther apart.
C. The complexes become shorter and closer together.
D. The complexes become narrower and farther apart.

Recovery from general anesthesia begins when?

A. Oxygen flow rate is at 0ml/min and inhalant gas is at 0%
B. Oxygen flow rate is at 3L/min and inhalant gas is at 0%
C. Animal is extubated
D. Animal is placed on recovery cage

Maintenance anesthesia begins when?

A. Oxygen flow rate is at 3L/min and Isoflurane is at 3%
B. Animal loses palpebral reflex
C. Oxygen flow rate is at 1L/min and Isoflurane is at 2%
D. Decreasing oxygen flow rate and Isoflurane % plus loss of palpebral reflex

What is the minimum acceptable respiratory rate range for a dog or cat while being maintained under gas anesthesia?

A. 1 breath/min
B. 4-8 breaths/min
C. 12-16 breaths/min
D. 20-24 breaths/min

What is the minimum acceptable heart rate that a dog should maintain while under gas anesthesia?

A. 60 beats/min
B. 80 beats/min
C. 100 beats/min
D. 120 beats/min

The normal depth of the gingival sulcus in a dog is?

A. 0 to 0.5 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 1 to 3 mm
D. 4 to 6 mm

Removal of dental calculus from the cementum of a tooth is called?

A. Curettage
B. Polishing
C. Subgingival scaling
D. Route planing

Which of the following best describes a dental curette?

A. It is used strictly as a supragingival instrument
B. It can be used supragingivally or subgingivally
C. It has a pointed toe and pointed back
D. Both B and C

This dental instrument has a pointed toe, sharp cutting edges and a pointed back. The cross-section of the working end of this instrument is triangular shaped. What is this instrument?

A. Periodontal probe
B. Hand scaler
C. Ultrasonic scaler (P-3)
D. Curette

The periodontal ligament?

A. Is radiolucent
B. Is located between the tooth root and Lamina Dura
C. Connects the cementum to alveolar bone
D. All of the above

The furcation of a tooth?

A. Is the space between tooth roots
B. If exposed is an indication of horizontal bone loss
C. If exposed may be an indication for tooth extraction
D. All of the above are true

The structure of the tooth where nerves, blood vessels and lymphatics travel to and from the pulp is the?

A. Apical delta
B. Lamina Dura
C. Cementoenamel junction
D. Interdental papilla

The most accurate way of assessing attachment loss of a tooth is?

A. Measuring pocket depth with a periodontal probe
B. Estimating bone loss by assessing gingival recession
C. Taking a radiograph to visualize root length and visualize bone loss
D. Using a curette for supragingival scaling

The periodontal ligament connects the?

A. Cementum to the alveolar bone
B. Gingiva to the cementum
C. Cementum to the enamel
D. Dentin to the enamel

Gingival recession occurs due to?

A. Gingival hyperplasia
B. Vertical bone loss
C. Horizontal bone loss
D. Both A and B

Which of the following is true about a retained deciduous lower canine of a dog?

A. The adult canine would be located mesial to the retained tooth
B. The adult canine would be located lingual to the retained tooth
C. The adult canine would be located distal to the retained tooth
D. The adult canine would be located buccal to the retained tooth

The most common oral disease in the cat is?

A. Periodontal disease
B. Resorptive disease
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Osteosarcoma

The instrument used to measure gingival sulcus depth is?

A. An explorer
B. A curette
C. An ultrasonic scaler
D. A periodontal probe

Which instrument can be used to remove dental plaque and calculus from only the crown surface of the tooth?

A. Universal curette
B. Sickle scaler
C. Dental explorer
D. Gracey curette

A white-tan film that collects on teeth and is composed of bacteria, exfoliated cells, food debris and saliva is termed?

A. Plaque
B. Calculus
C. Caries
D. Stain

When using the P3 ultrasonic scaler tip, the toe should move across the tooth surface. Should the tip move perpendicular or parallel to the long axis of the toe?

A. Perpendicular
B. Parallel

When radiographing the upper left adult canine of a dog, if the x-ray beam is projected perpendicular to the sensor, the tooth will be?

A. Elongated
B. Foreshortened
C. Normal
D. Superimposed

When taking dental radiographs in lab, the operator must be at least __________ away from the source of the x-ray beam.

A. 2 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 8 feet

The bisecting angle technique would NOT be used to view which of the following teeth?

A. Mandibular first molar
B. Maxillary incisors
C. Maxillary canine
D. Maxillary fourth premolar

What positioning technique is used to eliminate or reduce superimposition caused by adjacent tooth roots?

A. Mesial oblique
B. Distal oblique
C. Parallel technique
D. Both A and B

Which of the following statements is false?

A. If the crown looks perfectly normal, then the area of tooth not visible must be healthy.
B. 50% of tooth structure is below the gum line.
C. Most dental pathology can only be diagnosed with dental radiographs.
D. Dental radiographs improve patient care and service provided to the client.

Which statement is true?

A. Elongation is caused when the tube head is too perpendicular to the film/sensor.
B. Foreshortening is caused when the tube head is too perpendicular to the film/sensor.
C. Foreshortening is caused when the tube head is too parallel to the film/sensor.
D. Elongation is caused when the tube head is too parallel to the long axis of the tooth.

Teeth that are radiographed using standard parallel technique are?

A. Maxillary incisors
B. Mandibular canines
C. Maxillary premolars
D. Mandibular molars

What safety tenants need to be kept in mind when taking radiographs?

A. Maximum time, minimum distance, maximum shielding
B. Minimum time, maximum distance, maximum shielding
C. Maximum time, maximum distance, maximum shielding
D. Minimum time, maximum distance, minimum shielding

Cranial border of abdominal radiographs and caudal border of thoracic radiographs is?

A. Thoracic inlet
B. 13th rib
C. Diaphragm
D. Sternum

When performing an upper G.I. series, what should be done prior to administering barium to assure that the orogastric tube is in the esophagus?

A. Syringe saline into the tube to elicit a cough if the tube is in the trachea.
B. Palpate the orogastric tube in the trachea
C. It is impossible to pass an orogastric tube into the trachea
D. All of the above

Identify the correct peripheral borders for a stifle radiograph?

A. 1/3 of the humerus and 1/3 of the radius/ulna
B. Hip and tarsus
C. 1/3 of the femur and 1/3 of the tibia
D. Shoulder and carpus

The dose of barium given for a barium upper G.I. series is?

A. 1-2 ml/lb
B. 3-5 ml/lb
C. 6-8 ml/lb
D. 10-12ml/lb

Esophagrams or barium swallow are performed by administering?

A. Barium paste 120% w/v fed by mouth
B. Barium liquid 20% given rectally
C. Barium liquid 60% via w/v orogastric tube
D. All of the above

Which of the following is not an abnormality seen on an upper G.I. series?

A. Dilation of the small intestine
B. Delayed gastric emptying
C. Intestinal contractions that appear as a string of pearls or segmentally
D. Barium that does not reach the large intestinal tract

What contrast agent is indicated if barium cannot be used for a positive contrast G.I. series?

A. Organic iodide
B. Carbonated water
C. Air
D. Both B and C

Identify the correct peripheral borders for a radius/ulna radiograph?

A. 1/3 of the humerus and 1/3 of the metacarpus
B. 1/3 of the tibia and 1/3 of the femur
C. Elbow joint and carpus
D. Full limb

An upper G.I. (Barium) series evaluates?

A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. All of the above

What component of the x-ray tube is positively charged and can be rotating or stationary?

A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Filament
D. Focusing cup

What affects the contrast or shades of gray on a radiographic image?

A. mA
B. kVp
C. Time (seconds)
D. All of the above

The fixer will cause:

A. Exposed silver halide crystals to be reduced into black metallic silver
B. Creation of latent image
C. Remove unexposed silver halide crystals
D. Stop back scatter from occurring to image when beam penetrates through cassette

What is the correct order of surgery drape placement when preparing a canine or feline patient for an ovariohysterectomy?

A. Cranial, caudal, far, near
B. Cranial, caudal, near, far
C. Far, near, caudal, cranial
D. Near, far, cranial, caudal

Surgical preparation/clipping is performed with what blade?

A. No. 10
B. No. 15
C. No. 25
D. No. 40

When opening a gown pack, non-scrubbed surgical personnel may touch the?

A. Autoclave tape
B. Indicator
C. Towel
D. Gown

Once gowned and gloved using aseptic technique, you are considered sterile from?

A. Bottom of the neck front to hemline
B. Bottom of the neck front to waist, side to side and both arms
C. Above the waist front and back
D. Below the waist front and back

Assuming 15 psi, the minimum conditions that must be met to ensure that a pack has been adequately sterilized by autoclaving is?

A. 121 C for 15 minutes
B. 131 C for 15 minutes
C. 250 F for 15 minutes
D. Either 121 C or 250 F for 15 minutes

Surgical scrub is performed by all personnel who are scrubbing into surgery on a patient. The best reason for the scrub is?

A. To wash your hands
B. Scrub your nails very well
C. To remove dead cells and debris, as well as allow contact time to decrease your bacterial load.
D. To sterilize hands

What size scalpel blade fits on a #3 scalpel handle?

A. No. 10
B. No. 20
C. No. 21
D. No. 30

As a surgical assistant asked to drape the patient, one should be wearing?

A. Cap, mask, surgical gown, open gloving technique
B. Cap, mask, surgical gown, closed gloving technique
C. Cap, mask, scrubs, closed gloving technique
D. Cap, mask, scrubs, open gloving technique

An autoclaved double wrapped muslin pack, kept in a closed cabinet, can be safely stored?

A. 1 week
B. 3 months
C. 7-8 weeks
D. 8 months

Identify the proper borders for shaving an abdominal surgical site?

A. From thoracic inlet to caudal to the 13th rib, the width of the shoulders
B. From the xiphoid process to the most caudal pair of mammary glands, and from flank fold to flank fold
C. Caudal of the 13th rib to just cranial of the hips, and the width of the ribcage
D. From the ischial tuberosity to the thoracic inlet, and from flank fold to flank fold

What is the process by which a cloth or material transfers contaminated fluids from a non-sterile to a sterile area?

A. Sponging
B. Whisking
C. Soaking
D. Wicking

A large drape with a hole in it maybe used for an abdominal surgery instead of placing four smaller drapes. The hole of the large drape is placed over the area where the incision will occur. What is the name of this type of drape?

A. Fenestrated drape
B. Umbilical drape
C. Hysterectomy drape
D. Mitchell drape

What is the blood vessel of choice when drawing a larger volume of blood from a dog or cat for most blood tests?

A. Jugular vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Saphenous vein
D. Both A and C

Which of the following is not an indicator of poor blood sample collection or handling technique?

A. Hemolysis
B. Clotting
C. Lipemia
D. Improper anticoagulant/blood ratio

Purple top blood collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose?

A. Sodium citrate and chemistry profile
B. EDTA and CBC
C. Heparin and CBC
D. EDTA for glucose determination

Blue topped collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose?

A. Heparin for blood glucose determination
B. Serum separator for chemistry profiles
C. EDTA for a complete blood count
D. Sodium citrate for blood coagulation determination

For hematology tests, clots in EDTA blood are?

A. Acceptable if they are microscopic
B. Acceptable if they are detected on a wooden stick
C. Acceptable if they are run through an automatic analyzer
D. Never acceptable

EDTA plasma cannot be used for diagnostic testing because it forms a complex with what?

A. Magnesium
B. Phosphorus
C. Calcium
D. Potassium

What is the difference between a red top Vacutainer and one with a mottled gray and red top?

A. One contains diatomaceous earth and the other does not
B. One contains serum separator and the other does not
C. One contains EDTA and the other does not
D. One contains heparin and the other does not

Which of the following Vacutainer tubes does not need to be inverted (mixed) after collection?

A. Lavender top
B. Green top
C. Red top
D. Blue top

With a bandaged limb, leaving the toes exposed allows for?

A. Monitoring for swelling under the bandage
B. Is a poorly placed bandage
C. Comparison with toes on bandaged limb with toes on opposite limb
D. Allows for monitoring of swelling and toe comparison

When obtaining blood for a red top and a purple top tube, the blood sample is placed in?

A. The red top first as to not contaminate it with EDTA
B. The purple top first so the blood will not have time to clot in the syringe
C. The purple top first as to not contaminate it with EDTA
D. The red top first so the blood will not have time to clot in the syringe

Once venipuncture has occurred, if your pressure wrap is applied, what is the usual length of time the pressure wrap is left in place?

A. 30 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 1 minute

Which of the following digits should be visible to assess for swelling and hypothermia?

A. First and second
B. Second and third
C. Third and fourth
D. Fourth and fifth

Give one reason why it is important to have adequate water flow when using an ultrasonic scaler. - To help prevent heat buildup

Give one reason why dental polishing should always be performed as part of a complete dental cleaning. - Polishing helps remove small scratches that calculus can adhere to

Which step of the dental cleaning involves evaluation of periodontal structures, recording of various abnormalities and measurements and can be performed before or after removal of dental calculus?

Step: ________________
Instrument: _________________ - Step: Physical examination/charting
Instrument: Periodontal probe

Which hand instrument is used initially for the removal of large, gross dental calculus deposited on the crowns of the teeth? - Molar extractors

When using the P-10 ultrasonic scaler's, toward what structure should the toe pointed - Rostrally and towards the gumline to prevent water from being aspirated

Give one indication for performing urinary catheterization - To empty her bladder that can't due to some sort of trauma or disease process

Drip rate for a 47 lb dog with a 15 gtt/ml drip set. - 1 gtt/sec

Reservoir bag size for a 47 lb dog - 2 liter

Actual range for maintenance oxygen flow rate for a 47 lb dog. - 500-1,000 mls/min

At what time intervals are radiographs taken for a barium upper G.I. series? - 15 min, 30 min, 60 min, 90 min and then every hour until the barium reaches the colon.

Volume of barium and volume of water to be administered for a 50 lb dog getting a 30% suspension instead of a 60% suspension. - 75 mls or 125mls of each